It appears that the article was technically correct in regards to the "world-wide" ban on polygamy beginning in 1904. Please see the comment Christopher left under that post for more details. Thanks, Chris.
Further, I wrote an email to the author of that article. She sent a brief reply as shown below:
"We tried to simplify, thus the reliance on the later date. (The first ban was not uniformly followed, thus it was restated.)"
I appreciate the response of the author and here willingness to discuss this subject.
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